Seudónimo Seudónimo
  • 02-05-2015
  • History
contestada

A noble woman educated her children. Why was a peasant woman less likely to teach her own children?

Respuesta :

izzy51135
izzy51135 izzy51135
  • 02-05-2015
The peasant would be less educated herself and unable to teach her children. While a noble was probably rich or had a decent amount of money and was educated as a child therefore able to educate her children/child.

Answer Link
Аноним Аноним
  • 02-05-2015
Because some of the peasant womens are less educated and had lot of chores to do.
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

in his published 95 theses martin luther protested against?
Jennifer is a 48-year-old woman who has had a heart attack. Her doctor admits her to a unit in the hospital that is specific to her condition. What abbreviation
What is likely to happen in the long run to firms that do not reach minimum?
The committee announced _____ final choice for the winner of the scholarship. their its it's they're
Why is Black Friday a frustrating experience for some people.
How would you explain American values to someone who has no idea about our society?
In which role is the president considered the top person in his/her political party? a. representative of the nationb. party leaderc. chief executived. commande
convert 0.09 cubic meters to kg
The tearing down of the Berlin Wall was symbolic of the reuniting of East and West Germany. True False
Simplify.... please help